Old vs. New
And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance. Hebrews 9:15 KJV
Testament – Of course, when you read this verse in the modern translations of the NKJV, NASB, NIV or NRSV, you will find that the Greek diatheke (used in the LXX for the Hebrew brit) is correctly translated “covenant,” not “testament.” But simply because these translations have corrected the word does not mean they have corrected the 400 years of theological error that followed the King James error. We need some history to see just how influential this little mistake has been.
When Jerome translated the LXX into the Latin Vulgate (the version used by the Roman Catholic Church for nearly 1500 years), he correctly translated Jeremiah 31:31, using the Latin foedus for the Greek diatheke for the Hebrew brit. No problem yet. But when he translated the citation of this same verse in Hebrews 8:9, he did not use the Latin foedus (or even the synonym pactum). Instead he used the Latin testamentum. With this mistake, he introduced the idea of a “new testament.” Unfortunately, even though the word diatheke appears more than 300 times in the LXX, it never means “testament.” Why? Because a “testament” is the last declaration of a single person for the disposal of property upon death. A covenant is a declaration of terms of a relationship between two parties who are both alive. A covenant has no authority once one of the parties dies (as Paul makes abundantly clear in Romans). But a testament does. It is a death statement, not a life statement. And since it takes effect only upon the death of its maker, it implies that what was formerly true is no longer the case. The person has died.
By legitimizing the idea of a “testament,” the Catholic translation allowed the former covenant of YHVH with Israel to be treated as if it no longer applied. The former agreement was over because one of the parties was dead. God rejected Israel and offered a “new testament.” Therefore, all of the previous requirements that kept the former agreement in place were now null and void. The death proclamation closed that “old” way of relating to God. Now the Christian faith could rewrite the agreement.
This mistake influences even the NASB translation of Hebrews 9:15-16. It suggests that the mediator must die because if there is a covenant, “there must of necessity be the death of the one who made it.” But this isn’t correct. It is not the mediator who dies because a covenant requires living parties. The sacrifice is not the death of one of the parties. It is the symbol of the commitment between the parties. The idea of a “testament” influences this incorrect translation.
Gruber notes: “Heb. 9:15 speaks of Messiah as the mediator of the new covenant. That means that Messiah is not the maker of the covenant. He is the mediator between the parties making the covenant. The parties of the New Covenant, as presented in Jeremiah 31:31-34/Hebrews 8:8-12, are God and the house of Israel.”[1] “This simple mistranslation, misrepresentation, and misunderstanding is foundational to virtually every Christian theology. It creates the illusion of a conflict within the Bible itself.”[2]
In the end there is no “new” testament and “old” testament. If fact, there is no “testament” at all. The Bible is about covenants, not testaments. The very existence of the page separating the Old Testament from the New Testament is a lie. Tear it out. It’s one book about one God and one people who have entered into living covenants together. Any theology that suggests otherwise was invented by Jerome.
Topical Index: testament, testamentum, foedus, diatheke, brit, Hebrews 9:15, Jeremiah 31:31
[1] Daniel Gruber, Copernicus and the Jews, p. 45.
[2] Ibid., p. 47
Like like like like like. Elegant and simple. The best, least labored clarification I have seen yet.
Thank you.
Dear Skip,
I am fairly new here so please bear with me. I understand you can only explain one word at a time but today’s word brings up many questions for me. I am not expecting quick easy answers but this is just to let you know I am confused and looking forward to more explanations. (No doubt I should buy your books.)
OK, so I understand there is no old or new testaments and I can agree with that but . . .
Is there an old and new covenant?
Are these covenant(s) only with the genetic people of Israel?
Did Paul open up these covenant(s) to the people of the nations?
Are they “Spiritual Israel”?
If the covenant is between God and Israel, can’t Jesus, the Son of God and not being one of the parties, be the symbol of the commitment between the parties, and therefore die?
I have been taught that YHWH was the bride of Israel, but that He divorced her in the OT and OT law forbids their remarriage. But that the death of one of the parties nullifies this law, so that if Jesus died, but rose again as a new creation, they can again remarry?
Thanks
“I have been taught that YHWH was the bride of Israel, but that He divorced her in the OT and OT law forbids their remarriage. But that the death of one of the parties nullifies this law, so that if Jesus died, but rose again as a new creation, they can again remarry?”
Hi Dan — like most of us, what you were taught is replacement theology.
The suggestion that YHVH would endorse divorce goes against scriptural admonitions to be faithful to the wife of your youth (see especially Mal 2:14-15). If God would discard Israel, on what basis would we think that He would exhibit more faithfulness to a “new” branch? If God cancelled (for lack of a better word) any promise to Israel, then by the nature of that act His promises must have been idle words — that is, something of non-being, vain, void of agreement with the Truth — but THAT isn’t possible when you understand from a Hebraic view that God and His dabar (word) are echad (one).
The church wants to act like a nasty second wife, who wants all of the assets (promises) and none of the liabilities (those to whom it was promised). We can’t have it both ways. Either God’s word (dabar: the spoken word and the manifestation) still stands as yes and amen, or it does not.
Thanks for trying to help Suzanne, but isn’t it clear in Jer 3:8 and Isa 50:1 and the story of Hosea that YHWH did divorce Israel? Or am I wrong? If the marriage was a contract, and the contract was broken by Israel, was it then not God who broke the marriage but Israel? And who can fault God for putting her away as He did not break any unconditional promise?
Ahh – but read down a bit in Jeremiah; the rest of the story is about the restoration of Israel, hardly consistent with our Greek idea of divorce. In Isaiah — it’s not that God has proclaimed a divorcement. I think that can be read as God saying (and I’m paraphrasing), “Show me this brit of divorce! Where have I divorced you or sold you into slavery? You’ve sold yourselves.”
Jeremiah 3:12 Go, proclaim this message toward the north: “‘Return, faithless Israel,’ declares the LORD, ‘I will frown on you no longer, for I am faithful,’ declares the LORD, ‘I will not be angry forever.
God does not divorce Israel He says himself that he is faithful, even when his people are not.
If this is not sufficient evidence then perhaps the return from exile and the rebuilding of the temple and the city of Jerusalem depicted in Ezra and Nehemiah is. Despite the many transgressions of the people of God, after there punishment, once they circumcise their hearts (turn to and seek him), God keeps his promises.
Also don’t confuse our modern idea of contractual obligation with a covenant. A covenant (brit) is not broken because one party is unfaithful. God didn’t renounce His rights (or obligations) to Israel because she was unfaithful — the restoration of relationship was there when the heart turned back. That’s the story of Hosea – that God’s faithfulness abides and our relationship is restored when we abandon the ways of idolatry and adultery.
Hi, Dan Kraemer, you ask good questions, and Suzanne, what you write is very helpful to me, too: thank you! I think a lot of us here are learning as we go! It appears to me that Skip has written about this from several different perspectives. Just for starters, try going to word search and searching for the TW titled Change Of Venue. Happy hunting!
Hi Laurita, Kyle and Suzanne,
Thanks for your help and guidance, I’ll look into these things. But am I wrong in stating that it was Israel and not Judah that returned to Jerusalem? Israel stayed unfaithful and never returned (and later Judah also.) I am sure God will not stay angry at either of them forever, for He is faithful but He must discipline. So what is this marriage feast of the Lamb? If it is future, how can God get married again without a divorce first? Hence comes the idea that His death, and therefore the death of the first marriage, allows for this “second” marriage in the future.
Great thinking again, Dan. For starters, there has yet to be a first marriage, for the obvious reason that there has yet to be a Bride that has been purified on this planet. YHVH was betrothed to Israel from the beginning, yes, but that is still the case. We, as outsiders, are just adopted into that first agreement. That is why we are referred to as spiritual Israel in the New Testament. Otherwise, why the same name? And, no, the ‘last’ Israel did not die, either. Some of the original branches cut themselves off of the Branch, but the Vine is still there. Not to mention the Root! The original deal is still on. We just got tacked on. Halleluah!
“The Bible is about covenants, not testaments.” Aaaahhhh, what a beautiful, crystal clear statement. I wish that someone new to the Bible would have asked about that somewhere along my road of “witnessing” and “discipling.”
Isn’t it amazing, sad and shocking that we have just blindly rolled our eyes over words in the Scriptures just treating them as words when, all along, they were/are THE WORD… if they are written, read and understood from YHVH’s and His Hebrew HaMashiach’s world view.
On a side note… HOORRAAYYYYYY! WE GET TO SEE SKIP IN PERSON for the first time TOMORROW AND SUNDAY!
I believe its Rabbi Bob.in youre latest teachings from Isreal,who has a very good illustration in reguards to this topic.We are in a football game,both teams go into there dressing rooms at halftime,when they come out they are not recognizable.They have on different uniforms,its not even the same players they have been replaced (by the church) the rules have changed,they are now playing basketball.How confuseing to the people who came to watch a football game,leave alone the players that have been replaced by basketball players.How can a snowjob of this magnitude fly, or convince so many?Simple I believe it was yaser Arafat who said( make youre lie big enough and just keep repeating it,and eventually they will believe it.)Thanks for helping to expose this one Skip.
Is the old covenant really old and is the new covenant really new? Because the words new and old even make it sound like one covenant changed or ended the other. If the bible is continuous is the new covenant included in the old covenant plan as something that would happen, almost as just another part of the old covenant? I recently been understanding the Tanakh as God’s Word and the Apostolic Scriptures as the greatest commentary on them and description of the Messiah’s life and living out of that word. But there is still another covenant introduced in the Apostolic scriptures as if it is new…
This has always been unclear to me and definitely distorted by the idea of old and new testament. But the words old and new and how these scriptures fit and relate to each other is still hard to make sense for me. Help? 🙂
Hi Skip, this is interesting, what do you suggest the correct translation could be of this? What does the death part do?
In a covenant arrangement, “The former agreement was over because one of the parties was dead.” I don’t quite understand which one is dead – God certainly isn’t dead and doesn’t Christ (Himself) ” ever live to make intercession for us?
It is not “old” vs. “new”- didn’t our Savior say ~ I have not come to destroy (the law) but to fulfill?” Since when are the “old testament” commands null and void? The word of the LORD endures forever! N.T. words? or O.T? – Friends, – it’s all good! From Genesis- the Book of beginnings through the Revelation of things yet to be revealed, ~ every word of God is pure!! ~ And, He (still) is shield unto those who trust in Him!
Is it the Hebrews, the children of Israel who are sinners? Or is the Gentiles who stand in need of a Savior? I suppose “ALL have sinned” is just too plain and simple for some folks to understand…
Spin this.. (please!) ~ What then? Are we any better? Not at all! For we have previously charged that both Jews and Gentiles are all under sin, as it is written (don’t you love those three words?- “it is written!”)
~ There is no one righteous, not even one ~
If (since) “all have sinned.”.- who then stands in need of a Savior? ~ This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, (by ALL?- both Jews and Gentiles?) that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief ~ (1 Timothy 1.15)
I understand what you are saying, Skip, about covenant being between persons who are living. But I do not understand the other verses in this chapter then that refer to the death of the one who made the covenant (if you render that word covenant instead of will/testament) and that it doesn’t go into effect until that death occurs. I am confused. To be honest, the verses in Hebrews 9 make more sense if the author is speaking about a will rather than a covenant. The only way I could see that a death would be required in a covenant is if the covenant was violated. From what I understand, if a covenant is broken, the one who broke it should die. So did Yeshua stand in Israel’s place because they broke covenant with God? The way Hebrews is written in English does not sound like that though. Hebrews sounds as if whenever there is a covenant, death is required.
I especially would like to understand because God has me in a place right now of teaching/equipping and significantly influencing a body and challenging its traditions, thinking, and culture. I do not want to mislead anyone.
The problem isn’t just this verse but the way the Greek is translated in the entire chapter. Daniel Gruber makes this quite clear in his discussion of the errors and the continuing mistranslations (Copernicus and the Jews, pp. 44-46). I have the book available if you want one ($20). By mistranslating the idea of “the death of the one who made it,” the whole concept of a Hebraic covenant (which does NOT require the death of anyone in the covenant agreement) is twisted. The passage in Hebrews is about a mediator, not a maker of the covenant.
Ah – thanks for promoting Daniel Gruber’s book! Hope you enjoyed it! We are hoping to get to VA Beach for part of your time there next week!