The Biblical Footnote
let it be known to all of you and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ the Nazarene, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead—by this name this man stands here before you in good health. Acts 4:10 NASB
Name – “In the name of Jesus, stand up and walk.” And, of course, we read this as if the name was the magic formula for success. As a result, millions of prayers are offered “in the name of Jesus.” Perhaps it never crossed our minds that his name isn’t “Jesus.” Technically, we were praying in the name of someone who never existed. But that didn’t seem to matter. After all, God knew what we meant. And things happened. All the more reason to ignore the Jewish context and continue using the name as an incantation.
Now let’s ask, “What did Peter mean when he said, ‘by the name of’”? What’s the historical background? Did you imagine that Peter thought of the name of the Messiah, his real name, as some sort of magical cure-all? Or was he following a long-established rabbinic pattern? Consider these examples:
- Nehilai b. Idi said in the name of Samuel: As soon as a man is appointed administrator of a community, he becomes rich. . .[1]
- Judah says in his name: In any place where there is a local Congregation . . .[2]
Said R. Shizbi in the name of R. Eleazar b. Azariah, “Gaining the sustenance of man is as difficult as . . .”[3]
What is the purpose of “in the name of” in these occurrences? The phrase is used like a modern footnote, recognizing the authority behind the statement. When Peter uses this common rabbinic designation, he is not reciting a magic name. He is simply saying that the event demonstrates the authority of the Messiah whose name is Yeshua. We were taught to pray “in the name of Jesus Christ” because we thought we were calling on God (in the second person) to fulfill our requests. But that is a thoroughly Christian Trinitarian idea. It’s certainly not what Peter was doing—and his statement doesn’t set a precedent for us. He’s simply doing what everyone else did in the Jewish world of the first century—citing his reference.
If this is true, then why is there so much evidence confirming divine intervention when prayers are offered “in the name of Jesus”? Why? Well, only God knows. What I know is that the magic is over.
Topical Index: in the name of, rabbinic, Talmud, Acts 4:10
[1] Babylonian Talmud Tractate Yoma 22b
[2] Babylonian Talmud, Berakhot IV, VII, p. 199
[3] The Traditions of Eleazar ben Azariah, p. 165.
I agree, I think that I was taught something like almost a spell haha. “In the name of Jesus get behind me Satan”, or, “I pray for _____ in Jesus’s name”. Funny when you take a step back how it kind of seems silly that it’s not even his real name. Then when you learn about his name in Hebrew you where that one out pretty quick too, “In YESHUA’S NAME!”. Makes total sense though. Can you give an example of how it would look if used properly, “invoking the name of Jesus” that is?
Magic never was any aspect of the true reality that is the authority of God AND His determined sovereign articulation of that Word… who both represents and is His Sovereign articulation as Agent of God’s own determined will and enactment.
“…why is there so much evidence confirming divine intervention when prayers are offered “in the name of Jesus”? Why? Well, only God knows.” (Come on, Skip! You can do better than that!)
“My teaching is not mine, but is from the one who sent me. If anyone wants to do his will, he will know about the teaching, whether it is from God or I am speaking from myself. The one who speaks from himself seeks his own glory. But the one who seeks the glory of the one who sent him—this one is true, and there is no unrighteousness in him.” (John 7:16-18)